standard sap???

[Former Member]

For sales scheduling agreement when I make the invoice of only one item the system verify that all items have a correct price determination.

For example:

I have an order with 3 items:

item 1 has no price determination also value 0

item 2 has value 5 $

item 3 has no price determination also value 0

I make a delivery only for item 2. Then if I try to invoice it, I can't, because the other two items in the order have no correct price determination.

Now the question: is this a standard sap behaviour???

[Former Member]

Hi,

Can you pl. let me know what is the error message system is giving when you try to create this billing doc for item 20?

Thanks

Krishna.

[Former Member]

Hi,

It may be happening because of the incompletion procedure and I think that is the standard SAP procedure because the pricing in billing gets copied from sales order.

Regards

Karan

Edited by: Karan Bhatia on Feb 27, 2008 4:14 PM

[Former Member]

yes, the pricing in billing gets copied from sales order, but why the sistem should verify all items of the order when I'm billing only one ?

[Former Member]

This is because the pricing procedure is same for both the items.It cannot be different for a same sales document type.

Regards

Karan

[Lakshmipathi]

Dear Francesca

Price error should always be controlled in sale order itself. As you said, if you have generated delivery for second item and creating invoice, system will check for pricing only for this item.

thanks

G. Lakshmipathi