on 02-20-2008 4:20 PM
Hello Experts,
I have this scenario, please help me
I have to execute two mappings of which one is a java mapping and then the other is a message mapping sequentially.
The mapping is something like below
Message1 -> (java Mapping) -> Message2
Message2
Message1 -> (Message Mapping) -> Message3
Based on the value in Message2 I have to map Message1 to Message3
I am not an expert in java so please give me options that doesn't involve changing of java code.
The above 2 mappings have to be implemented in only one interface mapping.
Suggestions please.
Hi Ravi!
You say message2 dependes on message1 and message3 is mapped from message1 but using also values from message2? But this means, that whole mapping dependes only on message1!
So change your mapping and use the one not based on message2, but message1. Put these as a condition in interface determination and based on these values use the correct mapping.
Peter
p.s. I'm not sure, if I got your requirement correctly, but your target message dependes only on message1 (since message2 dependes on it too), so this whole mapping can be done as 1. Unfortunately, you'll probably have to change your java part. Bur definetely, Raj is right.
Edited by: Peter Jarunek on Feb 20, 2008 5:36 PM
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Thanks
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Ravi,
It's not possible. See u can add two message mapping into single interface mapping in the below case only.
Message1---->Anymapping----->Message2
Message2 -
>Anymapping------> Message2
so your target of both your mappings has to be same messages.
raj.
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