on 12-14-2007 6:56 AM
Hi all,
We have a specific requirement , where in we have a set of fields coming from the source system. All the fields have values expect few. The few which don't have values are reserved for future use, and for each source field there is a corresponding target value and we need map them.
We have used value mapping here, but it doesn't work for fields which don't have values.
We have thought of accessing the fields which do not have values, dynamically or at runtime by connecting the database of the source system.
Is it possible to do this, if yes, please provide with your inputs and alternatives.
thanks,
younus
Younus,
As per you explaination:
<b><We have used value mapping here, but it doesn't work for fields which don't have values.></b>
If you have used value mapping then definetily you will get the values in your desired fields, and if you don't get them then you can pass some constant (depending upon the requirement).
One important thing about value mapping, as you said you have some empty fields and you want you have a value in these fields by using value mapping, Value mapping will ONLY return any result untill you will pass it somthing (for example as in case of RFC, you pass something and you will get the reslult), So when you don't have anything in your source fields then how can you fetch any data from VALUE MAPPING????
Plz correct me if I am wrong.
<b><We have thought of accessing the fields which do not have values></b>
On what basis you will fetch the data/fill the data??
You have to have something in your source fields to use the value mapping or lookup function.
Alternate solution can be of using CONSTANT values for empty source fields. Just consult with your client or function team.
Regards,
Sarvesh
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Younus,
Can you be more specific on what happens if there is no value in the source?
Are you getting error?
Regards,
Jai Shankar
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Hi ,
As of now there is no value in the source, but for it to work we have populated some values.
But it is not the actual case, we need the values to be fetched from database during runtime. (it deals with how we are populating values in value mapping).
Hope this should make the problem clear,
regards,
younus
Younus,
I got your problem, you are saying that you are passing the required values to value mapping to fetch the data from data base but when you are using the value mapping you are not getting any value, correct??
IF above is the case then, based on my experience, value mapping takes time once you execute the progaram to populate the vlues (initially my be an hour or more). To check the values coming from value mapping goto RWB -
> Cache Monitoring then input the values in "cache server" & "cache objects" and after that enter the values in <b>Agecy, Schema, Value</b> and see if you have got the values there, if yes then your value mapping is ready to use.
Regards,
Sarvesh
Go through this:
http://help.sap.com/saphelp_nw70/helpdata/en/13/ba20dd7beb14438bc7b04b5b6ca300/frameset.htm
<b>To implement Value Mapping, following activities have to be performed:</b>
<b>1.</b> Register Java Proxies. This is one time activity for each installation. Following URL has to be called for registering asynchronous replication scenario:
<b>2.</b> Application Programming: ABAP program has to be written to perform following tasks:
<b>a.</b> Read Value Mapping data from table.
<b>b.</b> Call Outbound Proxy to push the data into a message to Integration Server.
<b>3.</b> Configuration of Replication scenario in Integration Directory.
Regards,
Sarvesh
Hi all,
Well i still have problems in solving this query.
Actually we have to populate the value mapping from a JDBC database, i gone throught the blogs but all of them expalin the value mapping replication process where in SAP tables are the source and it includes ABAP programming, where as my source system is a database.
Please provide me with the detailed steps to be carried out in IR and ID to accomplish this task.
Thanks once again.
Younus
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