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Indirect Valuation for IT0014 based on direct valuation in IT0008

Hi Experts,

Im in UK payroll support. Client is using direct valuation (enter wage type and amount manualy in IT0008) so their requirement is , have to fetch percentage amount accroding to the user input in percentage inIT0014, the amount has to update based on wage type 1000 (which is basic pay from IT0008)

ex.  Basis Pay WT1000  = 1600 GBP   (In IT0008)

When user select wage type 1010 in IT0014 and enter percentage value lets say 5% then the amount should come atomatically as = 80 GBP.

for this i use wage type 1010  Indirect valuation SUMME  varient I and i maintained V_T539J. but its not picking the value. but if i use Basic pay wage type 1000 as indirect valuation using TARIF B then this calulation is coming correctly.

Client doest like to go for indirect valuation for Basic pay (because they have some intergration issue with successfactor) so they want to use manual entry in IT0008 but indrect valuation for IT0014.

How i can do this as standard way? is there any way to achive this?

I have tried with TARIF A and maintained table  V_T510 with Zero value. but when i ender the amunt in IT0008 the indicator 'I' is removed. so my indirect valuation is not working. but if have that indicator then its working.

Kind regards,

Saritha

Former Member
Former Member replied

Try the below:

1) In V_T511 assign PRZNT variant B to the IT 14 wage type. Assign Amount-  no/unit +

2) In V_T539J, add an entry for PRZNT for the IT 14 wage type with the basic pay as the base and update percentage as 100%.

3) In It 14 create a new entry & update the percentage as required. It works correctly even if the basic pay is entered directly in IT 8.

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