on 07-09-2015 10:46 PM
We have vacation pay implemented for Canada employees. A canadian employee was moved from full time to Temp employee. However the system tried to pay him vacation pay for the earnings when he was a full time employee. He was termed as a full time and rehired as a temp employee. Please help
In Canada, I believe that it is a legal requirement to pay out the accumulated vacation pay upon the employee's termination. To confirm that, you would have to check the Employment Standards Act of the Province where the employee was/is working.
For example, here is the site for the Ontario Ministry of Labour
Employment Standards | Ministry of Labour
The required payments upon termination most likely are the same eve if the employee is "re-hired" immediately as a "temporary" employee.
You must be a registered user to add a comment. If you've already registered, sign in. Otherwise, register and sign in.
Actually i see WT M304 getting generated for temp employees and for us this wagetype is only for Regular employees (custom of M304)
I am thinking after the WT M304 is generated , i will write a rule that if the employee is temp i will remove the wagetype from OT . Can i query temp employees and remove the wagetype from OT in the same rule...Thank you
User | Count |
---|---|
102 | |
12 | |
11 | |
6 | |
6 | |
4 | |
3 | |
3 | |
3 | |
3 |
You must be a registered user to add a comment. If you've already registered, sign in. Otherwise, register and sign in.