on 06-17-2015 8:41 AM
Dear experts,
I have a couple of questions related to the tcode F111, could you kindly help me?.
1. Is there any risk of paying a vendor / customer based on an open FI document (Posted for example via FB01, MIRO, FB75, et) similiar to what it is possible via F110?
2. Assuming the answer of question number1 is NO,am I right to assume that payments via F111 are only possible if a payment requrest was previously created (Posted for example via F-47, F-59?
The reason why I am asking these questions is because one of my activities is to monitore segregation of duties, so I need to understand what transactions and the minimum authorizations that, when combined, could trigger a risk to the company. Said that, I am open for suggestions if you think I am missing something here.
Many thanks in advance for your time and knowledge.
Hi Wendell,
1. Payment requests need to be released before they are eligible for F111 payment run. I'm not sure what risk you're referring but as long as payment requests are not released and not within due date, it will not be paid.
2. There are other factors such as value date/due date but this seems right.
Hope this helps.
Jayj
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Hi Joseph,
Thank you for the quick reply.
So basically the payment process via F111 would be:
1- Post the payment request
2- Release the payment request
3- Execute the payment (F111).
Is that right? If so, what transactions could potentially be used in the steps 1 and 2? When I mentioned risks I was referring to the potential risk of a single user with access to the three tasks perform a payment to him/herself or to a fraudlent vendor.
Thanks
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