Mapping Doubt

[Former Member]

Hi guys.

In my mapping scenario, I need to use 2 information sources ( from 2 systems ) to insert data in only one target.

Explain: My system A calls a WS ( SOAP Adapter ) and sends his information including a CODE reference from system B. In Mapping program, I need to read this CODE, get some informations based on it from system B, join into my data type and insert all informations ( from A and B ) in a 3rd system C.

In my modest opinion, I need to have 2 messages and configure the Message1 to provide the information to Message2. System B must to be a Receiver ( from Message1) and Sender ( from Message2). Is that right???

Can it be done? Preferentialy without BPM 😛

Tks

[henrique_pinto · Accepted solution]

If you want to use proper Logical Routing, a BPM is needed.

As a workaround, you could perform a Lookup in System B (if System B is either a Web Service, RFC or DataBase) in mapping from messageA to messageC.

Regards,

Henrique.

[Former Member]

Hi,

Based on what you are saying, 2 msgs from 2 different systems using 2 different comm channels, you have to use BPM.

Unless, you can get the information from 1 system thru a database, RFC or webservcie call, then you can avoid BPM by using a user-defined function in mapping.

Regards,

Bill

[Former Member]

Hi

Tks very much to everybody!

[bhavesh_kantilal]

Alexander,

The problem statement is kind of confusing.

1. Are you using a Sender SOAP adapter, ie. have you exposed an interface as a webservice in XI ? or do you need to invoke a webservice in XI?

If you can give the entire process flow, a optimum design can sure be arrived at.

Also, if you have a requirement where 2 messages in are to be used in the source side for mapping, you will have to use a BPM. But, workarounds can also be arrived at depending on the exact flow as well.

Regards

Bhavesh