on 08-20-2014 9:38 AM
Dear Expert,
I have a scenario where the goods supply from plant to different country sales organization customer. it is a n export order.
. sales order has been processed with ship to address in Portugal. We did enter end user VATnumber on the ship to customer. When you look under conditions the MWST is 0.00 which means VAT will not be invoiced.
while creating the order MWST condition calculated correctly by using the export access sequence, but when creating the invoice w r t sales order i am getting the domestic tax access sequence record.
in my case it is wrong, the same sales order MWST condition amount needs to be copied to invoice as well.
after going to condition tab of that billing document, select MWST and click on "Condition Record" I found below different values in sd order conditions and invoice conditions:
invoice:
SD-Order:
Can you kindly help me on this? 🙂
Regards,
Yashar
Ideally, you should have a different pricing procedure for domestic and exports and I am not sure, why you have not created one more pricing procedure for exports.
Coming to your query, it seems, the issue is VAT registration number in which case, have a look at the following notes:-
G. Lakshmipathi
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Dear Yashr,
As per your scenario at sales order level , values is coming correctly that means your ship to party vat is maintain at customer master ->sales area-> billing type TAB .so that in sales order it is picking correctly , where as the same price is copied to billing through copy control and here bill to party is different . based on copy control pricing category tax will redetrimine based on bill to party . please check this once , you will get the solution and also check anybody changed the combination of customer master +material maser tax for vat.
Regards,
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