on 07-30-2014 11:39 AM
Hi All,
We are assessing the feasibility of integrating Travel and Payroll.
Now our client requires that advance input by an employee be paid through payroll for a trip planned in advance say a trip is planned on 1st Sept and employee has been notified on the same in July.
Sometimes there may not be prior intimation. In those cases the advances must be paid through AP. Is this possible?
Are the 2 scenarios possible:
1. Employee given an advance of 300$. He comes back and claims an 400$. He will be paid out 100$ deducted out of advance.
2. Employee given an advance of 300$. He comes back and claims an 400$. He will be paid out 700$ added to the advance.
Regads,
Avi
Any clue?
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Also can off cycle payments be dione?
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