on 03-18-2014 11:57 AM
Dear All,
Pls go through below senario and help me out.
suppose there are 2 WBS elememts, A and B
WBS A - Rs 10,000 , budget added( CJ30) and released(CJ32)
WBS B - Rs 10,000 , budget added( CJ30) and released(CJ32)
now i want to transfer Rs 5,000 from WBS A to WBS B, to do this transaction if i directly use CJ34, i am getting error. and to c\do this 1st i have change release for WBS A from CJ32 from Rs 10,000 to Rs 5,000, then go to CJ34 and carryout transfer, then again come to CJ32 and release both WBS. is this the correct procedure or not pls help me out.
note: Request to moderator - pls dont delete this post, if this is a easy query then pls help me out with answer, as i need this very much.
Regards,
Mandar
Hi,
For transferring, from WBS A to B, WBS A should have required available amount in Current Budget which is not yet released.
1) Firstly check if Rs 5000 is available on WBS A, means: current-released>=5000
2) If yes then simply transfer from tranx. CJ34.
3) If no then adjust some amount from released budget to make Rs 5000 available in current budget, using CJ32. And after that, transfer using CJ34
Regards
Shishir
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Hi,
Thanks for your response,
in our company we use PS for all capex items, so as soon as i create WBS we add budget and immediately same amount will be released i.e our current budget = released budget. and after some time we get request from users for budget transfer.and we use CJ34 for that.
Hello,
As far as I know you can use CJ36, insert WBS A and value with minus, then Save
Then run CJ36 again, insert WBS B and insert the value with plus then Save.
May be systems are customized diferently, but you can check that too. In CJ36 you can insert both WBS, one with plus and one with minus then Save.
Rodica
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