on 11-29-2013 6:53 AM
Hi,
Even if I am not maintaining any Tax jurisdiction code for the ship-to-party system is able to determine the Jurisdiction code while creating Billing.
Please advice how this determination happens.I had an interpretation that only if we maintain Tax Jur for a customer it can be determined at the billing but in this scenario the determination is not happening based on the customer record.
Share your thoughts... Thanks in advance.
Kumar
Hi Kumar,
if the country is relevant for tax jurisdiction, and ship-to party has not a valid tax jurisdiction code, then system retrieves the default one from transaction OBCL.
Check the SAP KBA 1672122 with some additional information.
Best regards,
Ivano.
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Thanks Ivano for your reply.
As you said the Company code has Tax Jur Code in OBCL...but my doubt why its not determining at Sale order level if am not maintaining the Tax Jur code for the customer?...at the same time if I maintain in the CustMastRec system is able to determine the code in SO level...
Thanks in advance,
Sara
Hello Sara,
that is strange. The logic is the same for sales document and billing document.
If you have debugging capacity, the relevant source codes are the following.
Sales order
FV45PF0P_PREISFINDUNG_VORBEREI
...
IF vbak-vbtyp NA 'W'.
... here system fills TKOMK-TXJCD
Billing document
LV60AA58
...
data: jcdactive.
... here system fills TKOMK-TXJCD
Best regards,
Ivano.
Hi
See also the attachment (configuration guide) in note 392696.
Regards
Eduardo
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I guess not for all countries, it is applicable. For countries like United States, Canada and Brazil, this is mandatory.
G. Lakshmipathi
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