on 01-08-2007 3:12 PM
Hi !
We have this scenario:
R/3 triggers an RFC(sender) via user exit, it must send some data to XI, XI should post that data to a HTTPS (not web service; doesn't use SOAP) and send the HTTPS answer to another RFC(receiver).
We think the only way is using BPM...we don't know how to handle the fact that this could be a complete sync scenario, but because of a special requirement, we should use one RFC for receiving data from R/3, and a different one (not the response of the first one) for returning data to R/3.
Can XI post data to an HTTPS web server and get and answer?? is this sync or async? ? XI should simulate the post of an html form and convert the unformated result back to a message to map it to a returning RFC..
What should we do with both RFC unused responses?? should we send dummy responses to both RFCs ??
Thank you very much...
Matias.
Thanks...I think we have now the required elements to go forward with this scenario.
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Hi Mattias,
if it is required to use 2 RFCs, your senario must be like:
RFC1->asynchr->BPM
BPM<->synchr<->HTTPS
BPM->asynchr->RFC2
HTTPS cant be mapped by a parser, coz assumedly the HTML in not wellformed. You can solve that by a not parsing Java or ABAP mapping.
If you call the RFC asynchr (in background task) there will be no response. Ignore it.
Regards,
Udo
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Hi Udo !!
Thanks for your answer.
What do you mean with "You can solve that by a not parsing Java or ABAP mapping." ??
What is "a not parsing Java or ABAP mapping" ? could I use the graphical mapping to convert the HTTPS response to the RFC2 message format? who should transform the HTTPS response ?? by the way, the HTTPS response is XML !! could I map that to a message type ?
Thanks,
Matias.
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