on 12-11-2006 12:27 PM
Hi ,
My Senario is like SOAP-XI-R3, In this R3 has Two Bapis,from soap to xi to R3 ,I am triggering Bapi1. Then In the<b> same R3</b> i need to trigger <b>Bapi2</b> from the Respose from Bapi1. Will this possible..using BPM. If not Please help me out to design this.
Thanks
KGS
it would indeed be better to avoid BPM in such a scenario where a wrapper can handle the task inside R3 itself. A design that can be altered to remove BPM is much prefered in XI considering the performance.
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Hi,
A better solution would be to write a wrapper BAPI that will call BAPI one and 2 and then give the response back to XI. This way you avoid a BPm copmpletely.
Else use a BPM, make a call to BAPI 1 , get the response of BAPI 1 in XI and then call BAPI 2 in XI.
If you want the process to be initiated from R3 itself, then you would need to go a wrapper RFC.
Regards,
Bhavesh
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Thanks Bhavesh, Ya I can write a wrapper for that, But this senario have to under go ICC XI-CNT certification. So this is not recommended by ICC.
Ya I am tring to Call Bap1 first from a Webservice I am getting the output Step1(send1-syn) . Then this response send to step2(send2-syn). Then the response of send2 is send to Step3(send3-Asy) as file.
I am getting a error in step 2. Please guide whether my approch is correct. If not suggest me the right one.
Thanks in Advance.
KGS
Hi Gowri,
As mentioned above, you can avoid BPM.
However there should not be problem in designing the BPM the way you are doing.
Can you pls specify what is the exact error that you are getting in step 2 ?
Couple of points to check -
1) Assign correct abstract interfaces.
2) Use containers from approapriate abstract interfaces.
3) Activate Interface mappings and message mappings if any.
4) Check BPM syntax.
5) Is the response of step 1 same as request for step 2 ? If different, then you will need mapping to be used.
Regards,
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