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Correlation BPM

Former Member
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My scenario is different.

1. We are getting XML file from the vendor which would have the PO details in it.

2. XI needs to read that XML and populate the ORDERS05 Idoc and send it to R/3

system to create the Sales order.

3. Once Sales order get created in R/3, R/3 sends ORDERS05 Idoc as outbound (With sales order data)

4. Once XI receives ORDERS05 Idoc from R/3 we need to send an XML file to my vendor, which includes some data from ORDERS05 and some of the data from XML file which we already received XML file from the vendor in the first step.

Can any one explain me that how one PBM is fine to implement this scenario and what are steps needs to taken care of..

I know I should use Correlation here but how?

Thanks

M

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Answers (3)

Answers (3)

STALANKI
Active Contributor
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/people/sravya.talanki2/blog/2005/08/24/do-you-like-to-understand-147correlation148-in-xi

Read that to understand correlation.

MichalKrawczyk
Active Contributor
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hi,

if you pass all the data to the SO in the SAP

you don't need to use a BPM with correlation

you can fill the reponse XML with data from order05 only (if possible)

if not you need to use a BPM and create a correlation

(you can use PO reference number for example)

which is very often stored in the SO data

Regards,

michal

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<a href="/people/michal.krawczyk2/blog/2005/06/28/xipi-faq-frequently-asked-questions"><b>XI / PI FAQ - Frequently Asked Questions</b></a>

moorthy
Active Contributor
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Hi,

Probably it looks like 2 interfaces..

1) Creating a Sales Order

2) Sending Sales Order Idoc to Vendor.

If you use, BPM, to make one interface there may be wait process involved in it.

I think it is better if you have 2 interfaces .

But if you are doing one interface, correlating message id can be useful to create vendor file.

Hope this helps,.

Regards,.

moorthy