as far as I understood it is just moving the "future cost" to "standard cost"; but my doubts is:
- what if the future cost is a manual input?
- what if the future cost is updated by product costing?
since it is a transaction "CK" I would that it work only futre cost calculated by product costing.
Maria Luisa Munoz replied
It works as follows depend on the MM data:
1) a future standard cost estimate (cstg view 2) in transaction MM03 for the current period exists
--> CKME will release this cost estimate (as also CK24 would do) and it becomes the current std cost estimate
a new standard price is set and revaluation is processed (if stock exists). A future price in acc view 1 will be deleted (!!!)
2) no future standard cost estimate (cstg view 2) for the current period exists, but a future price (acc view 1)
--> CKME will set a new standard price (from future price) and revaluation is processed (if stock exists)
the future price in acc view 1 will be deleted
note: if a current standard cost estimate exists (in cstg view 2) and message M8-155 is not set to warning or info (t-code OKZZ) then you will receive error CKPRCK-025 and the price will not be changed
In the described situation case 2) applies. If the std price is set from future price in acc view or by MR21 then the costing view fields will not be changed.
I hope this clarifies your question,