on 05-14-2011 7:10 AM
Hi all,
I have a scenario in which VAT is coming in a couple of Returns order (created with reference to an invoice) whereas the VAT was not chargedin the original invoice .
Please let me know in what scenarios can this happen..
Regards,
Smitha
Hai Smitha,
In General - in return sales order, whatever Invoice condition are created during Billing, should be returned full or proportionate.
In the copy control setting VTAF,
Billing to Sales order,
GO to the specific Invoice to order
In that GOTO item selection
and choose
Pricing type D Copy pricing elements unchanged
Since in return whatever ED and VAT paid should be reversed not even as per date.
Regards,
Mani
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If you have a different pricing procedure for returns in which if VAT condition type is included, then there is a chance of VAT flowing in return order.
thanks
G. Lakshmipathi
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Hi Lakshmipathi ,
Pricing Procedure is same in Returns.In original invoice the VAT amount is 0% (Access 25)whereas in returns that condition record is not found & it is accessing the next condition record(access90) which is 15%.If everything is same then why the same condition record is not accessed.
When i have seen the change log in the returns i found that SHIP TO PARTY has been changed to the SOLD TO PARTY . Change log shows that VAT has been chnaged from 0 to 15% in VA02.But VAT condition type is automatic & not manual .Could not find the reason why VAT got chnaged in VA02.
Kindly let me know what triggers VAT to be chnaged in a returns order
Thanks ,
Smitha
If the percentage of VAT is changing, then you need to check what was the tax code in parent billing document and what is the tax code flowing in return sale order.
As per your indication, this should have been different. Go to condition tab of return order, select the condition type UTXJ / MWST and compare for what combination, these tax codes are maintained.
thanks
G. Lakshmipathi
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