on 09-21-2010 9:20 PM
Hi,
I have an issue with posting costs and vendor payments (to supplying plant) from selling sales organization.
Supplying company code has generated an intercompany billing document (billing type: IV) with the selling sales org. We have single controlling area for both the selling & supplying company codes & sales organizations. Actually this is a make to order variant config scenario on the supplying plant side. So the production order is having a settlement rule with SDI as category. So costs are posted in the supplying company code correctly.
Now the issue is how will the costs posted in the selling company code and how will the selling company code know what amount to pay the supplying plant? Will there be any document refernce (like PO) for the selling company code to pay the supplying company code?
Thanks,
Surya.
Ideally, the buyer should raise a PO with the supplier. This is then referenced during the intercompany sales process and the buyer would have achieved a two or three way match upon vendor payment. The costs to the buyer is that reflected in the PO or in the supplier invoice. Hope that made sense.
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Hi Eric,
Thanks for the reply.
Actually both the ordering company code and the supplying company code are in a single instance. Already the ordering company code has raised a intercompany sales order with which the supplying company code will run MRP and manufactuer.
So again if the ordering company code raises a PO on supplying company code. From your suggestion, I understood that we can do a two way match without any GR to make the vendor payments. Will this be an open PO at ordering company and how will the MRP effect on the supplying company code side?
Thanks,
Surya.
Closed
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