After some research, I found out that my users have been releasing orders manually through FBL1N by removing the Payment Block manually. Why are they showing under MRBR still? Shouldn't they fall off?
You are very good at one thing - how to ask the same questions with different subject matters. 3 different subjects, almost same issue(s) so far. Educate your end-users on the use of the proper transaction codes.
I am trying to understand why if the user released the transaction manually by going to one transaction, it should not show under transaction MRBR.
Not sure why you commented. I am trying to understand why MRBR is showing the invoices still open/ blocked when they are not? They were not blocked by MRBR but by the user going into FBL1N and removing that way. Doesn't make sense.
From our experience . . . MRBR is part of the MM module and it feeds into the FI Module which is where FBL1n resides. We only use FBL1n to clear non PO related blocked invoices(like those from FB60 or FBD1). If you clear in MRBR first then FBL1n will show the invoice as UNBLOCKED, too because MM flows into FI (but not the opposite way). That's why those cleared via FBL1n doesn't clear MRBR.
You should also note that if you do a MR11 maintenance clearing where the invoice was entered before the GR and the MR11 mimics the GR, then MRBR will autoclear. We have MRBR set up to run as a batch job several times a day to unblock those invoices where there is now a 3 way match.
You must be a registered user to add a comment. If you've already registered, sign in. Otherwise, register and sign in.