on 02-05-2010 12:34 PM
Hi,
How to start trigger the process in XI? In my scenario first step need to Starts in XI .
So can you please guide me how i can proceed.
Thank you very much.
Sateesh
Does this fit into your requirement?
/people/krishnakumar.ramamoorthy3/blog/2007/04/12/xi--event-based-message-triggering-with-dependencies
Regards,
Prateek
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Hi Prateek,
Thanks for your input, i need some more clarfication about my scenario.
My scenario first step starts Trigger in XI and fetch the data from target system(Database) and call RFC to SAP system(Source system) and get the RFC Response from SAP and put the data into same target sytem(Database) via XI.
How I can proceed it.can you please give me your valuble suggestions.
Dear All,
Please give me valuble suggestions about my sceanrio.
Thanks,
Sateesh
Hi Sateesh ,
This can be done using BPM...
1. A receive step will receive the records from database
2. Sync send will call th RFC in the sap system and get the response ..
3. Transformaation step which will have a mapping between the response and the target structiure which will update the records in the same database
Hi Tarang Shah,
This is correct apporach only thank you for that.
Once a day at night the XI interface is triggered to start the data extraction.The Trigger starts in XI only not in source system and target system.
How we can schedule it every night for XI trggiers.I approach some blogs,can you please guide me your valuble suggestion
thanks
Sateesh
For starting a process in a particular time.
Set the Availablity time Planning of CC in
RWB>Component Monitoring>Adapter ENgine-->Communication Channel Monitoring --> At Top Right corner you will see
Availablity Time Planning.
Set your CC time in that for night (e.g. 2 AM) for time Slot as you decide (e.g 5 - 10 Minutes).
CC will start at 2 AM & will active only for 5-10 minutes.
Thanks sandeep,
Your valuble inputs, CC triggers every day that's good concept
actually my scenaio having three systems two sender systems and one target system
SAP(Source System1)
KDatabase(Source system2)-Database system
DB(target system)-- Database system
-
First step starts trigger in XI------
---then XI fecthes the date of the last successful SAP data update in the DB(target System)- (That means XI Fecthes data from DB(target system)
---and XI call RFC to SAP(Source System1) and last sucessful date updated in SAP and get result(response) from SAP
---Now this response pass to same DB (target sytem).
This RFC response pass to two tables one "H_Data" and "P_Data" If data is successuful stored in the two tables automatically update the "Sap_log" table with the date and status fields. If not successful stored in the two tabels it throws the error message.
after update the SAP data second process witll start again
-
XI fecthes the date of the last successful Kdatabase data update in the DB(target System)- (That means again XI fecthes data from DB(target system).
---after that XI sends data to Kdatabase based upon on the condition, Condition:XI selects all datasets of the Kdatabase view, that contain at least one modification date younger than the last successful Kdatabase data update.
--after "Kdatabase" sends the response to XI and XI put this data into the DB(target system)
--The "Kdatabase" response pass to one tables one "K_Data" If data is successuful stored in that table automatically update the "K_log" table with the date and status fields. If data not successful stored in that tabel it throws the error message.
This is process .
Can you provide your valuble suggestion, It will be very helpful me.
Thank you very much.
Sateesh
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