SAP XI 3.0 Same source for different target in std Value mapping function

[Former Member]

Hi,

We have replicated 4 value mapping entries from R3 to XI having the same Context , Agency , Schema and value for source, but each of the 4 values has the same Context and Agency but different Schema and Value respectively.

To illusstate :

Source                             |Target
Context Agency Schema    Value -----Context Agency   Schema     Value
CS1      AS1      SS1      1        CT1       AT1      ST1       A
CS1      AS1      SS1      1        CT1       AT1      ST2       A
CS1      AS1      SS1      1        CT1       AT1      ST3       B

This value mapping is not working and we always get the source value as the result.

We are wondering if the reason for this is that we use the same source for different targets. But we are not 100 % sure of it.

When I read the documentation on Value mapping or when we use the value mapping standard function in graphical mapping, we pass the context , agency and schema of the source and target respectively and the source value to get the target value, and this combination is always unique in our case as seen in the above example.

Has anyone faced this kind of an issue, if yes I would appreciate if anyone could help us resolve this problem.

Thanks in advance.

regards,

Advait

[Former Member]

Any answers for this will be highly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

regards,

Advait

[Former Member]

Problem solved, we used different source schema for each of the values. Shown as below :

Source                             |Target
Context Agency Schema    Value -----Context Agency   Schema     Value
CS1      AS1      SS1      1        CT1       AT1      ST1       A
CS1      AS1      SS2      1        CT1       AT1      ST2       A
CS1      AS1      SS3      1        CT1       AT1      ST3       B

So it seems you cannot use the same Context, Agency Schema for the same source value having different targets.

Now

Edited by: Advait Gode on Apr 19, 2009 2:10 AM

Edited by: Advait Gode on Feb 10, 2010 3:23 PM

[Former Member]

Hi Advait,

From the below what I understand is that you are not able to do value mapping for the follwoing

1 A

2 A

3 B

As value mapping allow one to one mapping only. Please do it like as mentioned below

1 1*A

2 2*A

3 3*B

Then in the graphical mapping of Integration Repository do the mapping for the same as shown below

source field > VALUEMAPPING> UDF--> TARGET Field

In UDF suppress the value of 1* , 2* , 3* which can be done as follows

**************************************************

create one UDF with one input field

//write the code as below to suppress the field

return input.substring(2);

**************************************************

Here the davantage of using 1* , 2* , 3* etc is that you have the option to use value mapping for 100 values which I think is not normally the case for any Interface.

If you have same source you can do the same thing for that.

Hope this helps you to resolve your query.

Thanks & Regards

Prabhat

[Former Member]

Hi Prabhat,

I'm not doing mapping as you mentioned, if you look at the example I have given, you will see that the source Context, Agency and Schema is the same same for all. What changes is the Target Schema.

So we have to map value 1 to A, A, and B of different target Schema's.

regards,

Advait