on 12-05-2008 9:38 AM
Hi ,
Having a question towards final settlement of rebate agreements. Please see the following details:
Going to transaction VBO2, to do final settlement for one agreement .
After entering the detail screen, I clicked "Execute Settlement" to manually put the figure that I really need to pay for final settlement.
In the field "Amt. to be paid," system brought out the left accrual amount ( say 500). However, I don't need to pay that amount actually. I put 0, in the field, because I really don't have to pay for the final settlement.
Then, I clicked "save" icon. According to normal situation, the system should provide a credit memo request no. to me to do order releasing and billing document for the credit memo. But, the message was "agreement no. 23400804 changed," which seemed that final settlement had not carried out for the rebate agreement.
My question is why I can't put zero(0) in "Amt to be paid" field? And, if I really have to execute like this, since this is real situation we would face here, which is that we don't need to pay a customer on a rebate item maybe at year-end, but we need to close the rebate agreement, then how can we do that??
Hi Anish,
can you try settling for such customers/cases using t-code VB(7 ? Though this txn is meant to do partial settlements--I think you can do final settlements too? please try using this and let us know..
Regards,
Raghu.
Edited by: Rags on Dec 6, 2008 4:04 AM
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