on 10-10-2008 3:09 PM
Hello,
When Im in transaction code CRMD_ORDER and I pass to VA01 with the bid number button Im having the following problem.
The business partner in CRM will have it´s customer number created in R/3 (SP). But because of the business scenario I need that the BP has at least 2 or more sold to partys and the VA01 will be able to ask me which one I want to use.
Is this possible without doing a Z program ?
Hello
I dont understand your business case at all. What do you mean by the BP will have 2 sold-to parties?
Regards,
Sowmiya
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The question might be:
Is it possible this scenarios in CRM
*One BP with one Sold to party
When you go to VA01 (by means of an RFC you take the customer whose reference is a BP in CRM)
BP 101 > ERP Sold to party 101
*One BP with several Sold to party (since maybe one person is calling on behalf of other entities of the same customer and you need separate sales orders)
BP 102 >ERP Sold to party 102
>ERP Sold to party 103
>ERP Sold to party 104
Kind Regards.
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