on 09-03-2008 8:28 PM
Hi Gurus.
Why do I have payment terms different between sales doc and billing doc for the same customer?
Detail: the sd and company code vision has the same value in customer master data (xd03, vd03).
Thanks in advance!
Renato
1) Check for changes in the customer master - what you see now might not necessarily be the same information that was there when the document was created.
2) This could also be caused by ABAP code in the copy control or data transfer routine (VOFM transaction). We have used this functionality to intentionally change the payment term on certain items (legal requirement).
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Hi
The Terms of Payment can be specified at the Condition Records level (VK11) also. Please check if there are any new condition records (for the billing date) and as per the copy controls if the condition records are redetermined during billing, there is a chance of changing the payment terms also.
Thanks,
Ravi
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Dear Renato
Go to VA02, input the sale order and execute. There click on Environment from top menu bar followed by changes. You would find four options to choose. Select
- Additional info and
- Time of Change
This would give you who have changed the datas related to that sale order.
thanks
G. Lakshmipathi
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